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INTERPRETATION OF SCRIPTURE
IN LIGHT OF EFFICACIOUS GRACE
By Kemper Crabb
It must be remembered that,
when one is interpreting
Scripture, Scripture should interpret Scripture, and the
clearer passages should rule the interpretation given the
murkier (less clear) passages, since the interpreter is
surer of the meaning of the clear passages. The point of
this principle is that one should not muddy a clear
understanding based on other, clearer passages by giving
priority to a passage with a more questionable meaning.
The more clearly understood passages should act as a
limiting factor on the passage in question; in other words,
the passage (or verse, or phrase, or word) in question
should not be allowed to alter the interpretation of the
clearer passages, if the less clear passage can be
interpreted in such a way that it is in harmony with the
clearer, better- established interpretation. If it's
questionable in the first place, then it should be ruled
by the things that there is no question about, and the
questionable interpretation should be made to harmonize
with the clear interpretation (provided it does not
flatly contradict the clearer interpretation; if it is
possible to interpret a questionable passage in harmony
with what there is no question about, one should).
- Cancerius Minorius
'WORLD' AND 'ALL'
"It is true that Scripture says that Christ died for the
world (John 1:29;3:16; 4:42;6:52;2 Cor.5:19;1 John 2:2;
4:14).It also says that He died for all (Isa.53:6;John 12:
32;2 Cor.5:14-15;1 Tim.2:6; Heb.2:9), though it is
noteworthy that the expression 'all men' is found only once
in connection with the death of Christ (Romans 5:18). In
all other cases where it is found in English versions, the
word 'men' has been supplied by the translators.
It might seem that these texts prove the case for univer-
sal redemption. But this is to take a superficial view of
the question. In fact, these verses may legitimately be
understood in such a way as to agree with the biblical evi-
dence already adduced for particular redemption. There are
three lines of argument...: first, that the terms 'world'
and 'all', though universal in form, are very frequently
used in Scripture with limited or indefinite reference;
second, that a more detailed exegesis of these verses in
context shows that universalism is not intended; and third,
that a universalistic interpretation contradicts the scrip-
tural witness to the nature of Christ's death.
The meanings of the word 'world' in Scripture are
briefly as follows:
1.The habitable earth, or, more generally, the created
universe (Job 34:13; Psa.24:1,90:2; Matt.13:38;26:13;
Acts 17:24; Eph.1:4; 1 Tim.1:15).
2.The inhabitants of the earth.
(i) Each and every individual (Rom.3:6,19).
(ii) Men in general, or many (Matt.24:14; Luke2:1; John
7:4; 12:19; 16:8; 17:21;Romans 1:8; 10:18; 1 Cor.4:
9; Col.1:6).
3.Evil [or, the world-system].
(i) Wicked men, as opposed to God's people (Isa.13:11;
John 7:7; 14:17,22;15:19;17:9,25; 1 Cor.6:2; 11:32;
Heb.11:38; 1 John 5:19; Rev.13:3).
(ii) Men generally, in their corrupted condition (Matt.
18:17; John 14:30; 18:36; Rom.12:2; 1 Cor.2:12;7:31,
33; Gal.1:4;Eph.2:2;6:12;Col.2:8;James 1:27; 1 John
2:15-17;4:5).
The word 'all' also has different meanings:
1.All of all sorts (Luke 24:25; Acts 10:36;20:27; Rom.5:
18a; 1 Cor. 7:17).
2.All of some sorts (Luke 4:13; Rom. 5:18b; 1 Cor.8:1;15:
22;Eph.4:6).
3.Some of all sorts (Matt.9:35; Mark 11:32;Luke 11:42;18:
12;Acts 2:17; Romans 14:12; 1 Cor.1:5; 2 Tim.2:1-3,8).
When Christ is said to have died for 'the world' or for
'all', those who wish to demonstrate universal redemption
must prove that 'world' is used in sense 2(i), and 'all' in
sense 1. It is plain that this is by no means evident on
the grounds of usage. The question is not, 'What is the
ordinary sense of 'world' or 'all' in English?'( for the
Bible was not written in English); but rather, 'What is the
meaning of the word in a particular verse?', and this can
only be discovered by studying how that word is used else-
where in Scripture and in its context."
- John Cheeseman in SAVING GRACE (Carlisle, PA; The
Banner Of Truth Trust: 1972,1999, Pp.76-78).
AN EXAMINATION OF SOME PASSAGES
THAT SEEM TO CONTRADICT
THE DOCTRINES OF EFFICACIOUS GRACE
Romans 5:18 : "Therefore, as through one man's offense judgement
came to
all men, resulted in condemnation, even so through one Man's Righteous
Act
the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life."
This passage compares the actions of Adam and Christ, maintaining that
both
of their actions ( Adam's "offense" and Christ's "Righteous
Act" of Redemption)
inevitably resulted in consequences that have been realized in men's lives.
If
"justification of life" has resulted for all men in the sense
of every man, then
every man is inevitably saved, since (1) this Gift has come to all men,
and
(2) it has inevitably resulted in justification of life for every single
man, which
(3) inevitably results in salvation and glorification for the recipient
of the
justification provided by Christ's " Righteous Act " ( Romans
5:9; 8:30 : both
teach that justification is the first step in an inevitable chain of events
[ justi-
fication>sanctification>glorification = salvation ] that comprises
salvation
itself ).
If one believes that this verse applies to every single man, then he must
believe in universalism (that salvation is universal) since this passage
presents
the accomplishment of justification as inevitably following Christ's Righteous
Act. If it is applied to every man then every man will be saved.
The problem with that interpretation, of course, is that Scripture teaches
us that every single man will not be saved ( Matt.25:31-46). Paul, who
wrote
the Epistle to the Romans, is thus the one who wrote the passage we're
considering here in Romans 5:18. Shortly (4 chapters later) after he wrote
this passage, Paul wrote Romans 9:15-29, which points out in no uncertain
terms that God sovereignly decrees who will and who will not be saved.
Since the likelihood that Paul had (a) changed his mind, or (b) forgotten
what
he had written in the short space it took him to write the Letter to the
Romans is practically nil, we can safely assume that he was not using
"all
men" in Romans 5:18 in the sense of every man. This is especially
true in
light of the fact that in verse 9 of chapter 5 of Romans, Paul had explicitly
set the stage that the Elect were in view there, as it reads, "Much
more,
then, having now been justified by His Blood, we shall be saved from wrath
through Him." This verse is 9 verses before the one we're considering,
and
clearly delineates that the Elect are who is in view as the justified
"all men"
in verse 18.
Romans 11:32 : "For God has committed them all to disobedience, that
He
might have mercy on all."
"All" here is not Greek "pantas", but is "tous
pantas", limiting the meaning
of the "all" to the context here in Chapter 11, which is a discussion
by Paul
of the future salvation of ethnic Israel, as is clearly seen in v.26,
which says,
"all Israel shall be saved". The "all" here refers
not to every man, but specifi-
cally to the "all" under discussion here, ethnic Israel.
Romans 14:15 : "Yet if
your brother is grieved because of your food, you are
no longer walking in love. Do not destroy with your food the one for whom
Christ died."
1 Corinthians 8:11 : "And because of your knowledge shall the weak
brother perish, for whom Christ died?"
Hebrews 10:26-29 : "For if we sin willfully after we have received
the
knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins,
but a
certain fearful expectation of judgement, and fiery indignation which
will
devour the adversaries. Anyone who has rejected Moses' Law dies without
mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses. Of how much worse
punishment, do you suppose, will he be thought worthy who has trampled
the Son of God underfoot, counted the Blood of the Covenant by which he
was sanctified a common thing, and insulted the Spirit of Grace?"
2 Peter 2:1 : "But there were also false prophets among the people,
even as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring
in destructive heresies, even denying the Lord Who bought them, and
bring on themselves swift destruction."
2 Peter 2:20-22 : "For if, after they have escaped the pollutions
of the
world through the knowledge of the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ, they
are again entangled in them and overcome, the latter end is worse for
them than the beginning. For it would have been better for them not to
have known the way of righteousness, than having known it, to turn
from the holy commandment delivered to them. But it has happened
to them according to the true proverb : ' A dog returns to his own vomit,'
and,' a sow, having washed, to her wallowing in the mire'."
WHAT ABOUT THE PASSAGES
WHICH SEEM TO SPEAK OF BELIEVERS
FALLING AWAY?:
1 COR.8:11; ROM.14:15; HEB.6:4-8;
HEB.10:
26-31; 2 PET.2:1,20-22
"The first two scriptures mentioned are similar and may be
considered together. Paul says that no cause of stumbling
should be put before a weak brother. He explains that this
is a sin, because its natural tendency is to cause the weak
Christian to fall into sin and to perish, which would be to
frustrate the purpose of Christ in dying for him. It is not
implied that this could actually happen; it is sufficient
that without God's intervention, it would happen. When Saul
threw a javelin at David (1 Sam.18:11) he intended to kill
him and was guilty, because the intrinsic tendency of his
action was to kill; yet it was not possible that he should
succeed, for God had anointed David to be king over Israel
[e.g., the Purpose God had appointed David to had not yet
happened, so Saul COULD NOT have stopped those future
Purposes involving David, since God guaranteed them by
His Anointing, and secured them by His Power - KC].
Of the passages in Hebrews there are several possible
interpretations. (1) Despite the strong expressions used in
Hebrews 6:4-5 and 10:29, many commentators (for example,
Calvin and Owen [and also less exalted personages, such as
myself. KC]) believe these passages to refer to professing
Christians who have been enlightened and have received many
of the privileges of God, and yet who are not true
believers (for example, King Saul or Judas). They claim
that nothing is here said which must necessarily be under-
stood of the regenerate [This is related to the concept of
the Covenant, which displays corporate/individual, visible/
invisible elements.-KC].(2) Others consider that it is more
natural to understand true believers to be spoken of, but
that the cases are hypothetical, intended as a warning.
When Paul warned the sailors to stay in the ship (Acts
27:3), he explained that unless they stayed they could not
be saved. Yet he knew, and had previously told them (verse
22-26), that they would be saved. It was still necessary
to warn them not to do what he knew they would not do. God
ordains not only ends, but the means to those ends. The
view that these passages in Hebrews 6 and 10 are hypo-
thetical is supported by 6:9, in which the writer makes
it clear that he does not think this will happen to any of
his readers; and Hebrews 10:26 begins, "For if we sin...".
This may therefore also legitimately be understood as hypo-
thetical.(3) The interpretation that these passages speak
of the actual apostasy of true believers, while possible
from these alone, is not necessary, as we have shown, and
contradicts the clear testimony of other passages.
The most probable explanation of 2 Peter 2:1 is that
Peter is speaking of these false teachers according to
their profession. They claimed that Jesus was their Lord
and Redeemer and were therefore considered as His people by
the church (e.g., members of the Covenant People in the
same sense as Korah and other non-elect members of the Old
Covenant people of God were, like the tares among the wheat
in the New Testament; cf. Matt.13:24-30; Matt.7:21-23
- KC). Their denial of Jesus Christ under these circum-
stances aggravated their condemnation. In general,
Scripture ascribes to those in the fellowship of the church
that which is strictly applicable only to those who are in
fact elect and redeemed.
2 Peter 2:20 speaks of a reformation from the ways of
the world, which may be merely outward, and this is
confirmed by verse 22. The sow that is washed is outwardly
clean - but it is still a sow: its nature is unchanged, and
it is for this reason that it returns to wallow in the
mire. The unregenerate man may, by close contact with the
gospel, reform his conduct and behave like a Christian; but
his nature is the same, and he inevitably returns to his
sinful ways."
-John Cheeseman, ibid.; Pp. 89-91.
1 Corinthians 15 :22 : "For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ
all shall
be made alive."
This verse occurs in the midst of a teaching on the Resurrection of the
Just by St. Paul, in which he discusses, as the verse itself makes clear,
the
resurrection of those who are "in Christ". Verse 21 compares
the facts that
both death and the Resurrection of the Dead came about by the covenant
actions of two representative men, our first father, Adam, and the Second
Adam, our Lord Jesus. The comparison extends the fact that their covenant
actions have results (Adam's to death and Christ's to Life and Resurrection)
for all who are in them. If a man is not in Christ, he is not affected
to receive
the Benefit of Christ's Covenant Action, e.g., being made alive at the
Resur-
rection.
Verse 23, which immediately follows the verse in question here, specif-
ically points to this Resurrection as referring to, first, Christ, and
then to
"those who are Christ's at His Coming", hence, to His Elect
People, rather
than to every man (which, once again, would point to universalism).
This should not be surprising when we consider that all men do not resur-
rect to blessing; many will arise to damnation, as Matthew 24:45-51;
25:29-46; etc., clearly teach. A universalistic interpretation of 1 Corinthians
15:22 not only contradicts other Scriptural Teaching about this, but the
very context in which it is found.
2 Corinthians 5:14-15 : "For the Love of Christ compels us, because
we
judge thus : that if One died for all, then all died; and He died for
all, that
those who live should live no longer for themselves, but for Him Who died
for them and rose again."
The context for this verse is verses 17-18 and 21, which establish that
the "all" here spoken of (not all men, by the way) are those
who have be-
come a "new creation" in Christ (v.17) and have been "reconciled...
through Jesus Christ" (v.18). The "all" here are thus the
Elect in Christ.
2 Corinthians 5:19 : "That is, that God was in Christ reconciling
the world to
Himself, not imputing their trespasses to them and has committed to us
the
word of reconciliation."
Once again, the context established here in vv.17-18 and 20-21 show that
God's Elect People are "the world" in view, since vv.20-21,
which immediately
follow v.19, point out that this is the world of those who have "become
the
Righteousness of God in Him", the Lord Jesus. This most probably
has ref-
erence to all the types of men (including Gentiles) whose trespasses have
been imputed to Christ rather than to themselves, as in Romans 11:12,15
and 1 John 2:2.
It is also true that the Jews (which all of the Apostles were ethnically,
in-
cluding St. Paul) called the Gentiles "the nations of the world",
or simply
(from that usage) "the world", since, prior to the New Covenant,
the Gen-
tiles were separate spiritually from the Jewish Old Covenant. This was
the
background and practice that the Apostles were raised and steeped in,
and
was, I believe, most likely intended to be the use of "world"
in v.19,
especially since, in the context of chapter 5, Paul was discussing how
Christ is no longer to be known "after the flesh" (e.g., ethnically,
cf. v.16),
and v.17 goes on specifically to teach that all are new creations in Christ,
a teaching designed to include both Jews and Gentiles in the Reconciliation
Christ has accomplished. So, again, the context for "world"
is the Elect, as
including both the ethnic Jews and the Gentile nations of the world. 2
Corinthians 6:1 : "We then, as workers together with Him also plead
with
you not to receive the Grace of God in vain."
Chapter 5 of 2 Corinthians set the stage for this passage by discussing
the
"ministry of reconciliation" (v.18 of chapter 5) that Paul and
his companions
were involved in. Chapter 6 continues the teaching about the ministry.
Verse
1's "Grace of God" is not saving Grace, but, as in Romans 1:5;
12:6;
Ephesians 3:8; and1 Corinthians 15:10, is the Giftings of Grace to fit
one for
ministry and sanctification (e.g., charismata and doctrine). Verses 2-4
go on to point out that it is the ministry that is not to be put in blame
by not
properly receiving this Gracing. The "Grace of God " is what
the Doctrines of
Grace are called in Titus 2:11; Hebrews 12:15; and Jude 4, as well.
2 Corinthians 11:2-3 : "For I am jealous for you with godly jealousy.
For I
have betrothed you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste
virgin to Christ. But I fear, lest somehow, as the serpent deceived Eve
by
his craftiness, so your minds may be corrupted from the simplicity that
is
in Christ."
1 Timothy 2:3-4 : "For this is good and acceptable in the sight of
God our
Saviour, Who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge
of
the truth."
Doesn't this passage clearly say that God desires all men to come to the
knowledge of the Truth? Does this mean every man? If so, what is to be
made of Romans 9:18, where it is said (by the same human author),
"Therefore He has mercy on whom He wills, and whom He wills He har-
dens."? And what it to be done with Jude 4, which speaks of ungodly
men "who long ago were marked out for this condemnation"? Were
the
Biblical authors (and Scripture's Ultimate Author) confused in their theo-
logy?
If one is to take all these passages seriously, then the reader cannot
in-
terpret "all men" in 1 Timothy 2:3-4 to mean every man. But
what else
could it mean? Let us look at the way the word "all" is used
in the context
of the passage.
Verse 1 of 1 Timothy 2 urges that supplications, prayers, intercessions,
and thanksgiving be made for "all men". Does this mean every
man ever
born, living or dead, or that ever will be born? Does this mean that we
should pray even for those who have sinned the sin that leads to death
(1 John 5:16), despite the fact that St. John specifically tells us not
to pray
for such a person? This would be the implication of taking the words "all
men" in verse 1 to mean every man.
Verses 5-6 continue verses 3-4 by speaking of the One Mediator be-
tween God and man, the Lord Jesus, Who is the Mediator of the New
Covenant in His Blood, and Who is decidedly not the Mediator of those
who despise His Covenant, and who are not members of it. Verse 6
teaches that, for those who are of His Covenant, He gave Himself a
Ransom, for all of those in His Covenant, which will be testified to in
time.
As Matthew 20:28 tells us, "Just as the Son of Man did not come to
be
served, but to serve, and to give His Life a ransom for many."
1 Timothy 4:10 : "For to this end we both labour and suffer reproach,
be-
cause we trust in the Living God, Who is the Saviour of all men, especially
of those who believe."
This passage is obviously not speaking of saving Grace in the sense of
justification, sanctification, and glorification, since (1) a distinction
is made
between "those who believe" and the rest of "all men",
and Scripture makes
it abundantly clear that faith is a condition which must accompany justifica-
tion (John 3:16-18; etc.), and that those who do not believe will perish
ever-
lastingly (Mark 16:16; Revelation 21:8; Matthew 25:25-41), and (2) if
the
reader understands "Saviour of all men" here to mean that God
does eter-
nally save all men, he is forced to the belief that salvation is universal,
in
the sense that no one will be lost to eternal damnation, a belief contradic-
ted by the passages just listed.
"The Saviour of all men" mentioned here is specified in the
preceding
phrase to be "the Living God", Who should be understood to be
the Father,
Who makes the sun to rise and sends rain upon both the just and the unjust
(Matthew 5:45). God providentially cares for all his creatures, and the
Greek
root-word for "salvation" and "Saviour" is a broad
term that is related to
healing and care. It is obviously being used in that sense here, an observation
buttressed by the fact that Paul here points out that this Providential
Care of
God is especially vouchsafed to the Elect (an argument used to good effect
in the apologetics of the Early Church, who argued that God had established
the world [including the pagans] with all its Blessings so that He might
glorify
Himself by blessing His People, so the pagans of the day, it was argued,
should be grateful for the Christians, since it was because of God's Plan
for,
and Favour to, the Church that the pagans and the world they inhabited
even
existed...).
The salvation in view in this verse is not justifying eternal salvation.
Titus 2:11 : "For the Grace of God that brings salvation has appeared
to all men."
This verse can appear to teach that salvation is possible for every man,
but
a bit of examination and notice to context quickly restores the correct
sense
here. In the first place, "the Grace of God" means the Grace
that lies in the
Gospel, e.g., the Gospel of the Grace of God, used in this sense frequently
in Scripture, as it is in Acts 20 :24; 2 Corinthians 6:1; Hebrews 12:15,
etc.,
so that what is in view here is the preaching of the Gospel, rather than
the
Justifying Faith it effects in the Elect by the Spirit's Regenerating
Power.
In the second place, this cannot mean even that this Grace has appeared
to every man, since it manifestly has not appeared to every person living,
either when this Epistle was written or now, since many die never having
ever
heard the Gospel, even in our day of lightspeed telecommunications. If
every
person living had heard the Gospel, there would be no need for evangelism
at all.
In the third place, the context of this verse in this passage is an exhortation
by St. Paul to St. Titus to teach the believers in his congregation to
act in
Godly fashion in their relationships to one another. The verses immediately
preceding verse 11 (verses 9-10) are addressed to Christian slaves and
masters, who are urged to act faithfully toward each other, the reason
being
(the "for" in verse 11) that God's Salvation-Bringing Grace
has appeared to
all men. The clear implication of the usage "all men" here is
governed by the
relationship of these two types of Christians (free and slave), with their
correspondent societal, legal, and frequently ethnic/national differences.
The
reason Paul uses "all men" is to point up that the Gospel has
been delivered to
all races, classes, and types of men, bringing God's Grace, Salvation,
and clear
Ethical Demands across differences in class, race, or societal status.
The "all
men" in view here are the Elect of all classes, races, and types.
Hebrews 2:9 : "But we see Jesus, Who was made a little lower than
the
angels, for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honour, that
He,
by the Grace of God, might taste death for everyone."
"'As I live, says the LORD GOD,'I have no
pleasure in the death of the wicked, but
that the wicked turn from his way and live."
Ezekiel 33:11
2 Peter 3:9 : "The Lord is not slack concerning His Promise, as some
count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any
should perish but that all should come to repentance."
This passage clearly identifies that God's Longsuffering is "toward
us",
e.g., the Christians of the Churches that Peter was writing to; Peter
was referring to God's Plan for the salvation of His Elect, not of humanity
at large. God's Plan unfolds across time as the Elect in each generation
are drawn to Him.
"The verse in 2 Peter is variously interpreted by commen-
tators. Some believe from the context ('longsuffering
toward us') that it is the elect and God's purpose to save
all of them that is spoken of [ as I do - KC]; others
believe that the verse speaks of God's general desire that
all men should repent, as in Ezekiel 33:11.
If we adopt the more general interpretation, both verses
teach much the same thing. God does not condemn the wicked
gladly. He takes no pleasure in the pains of Hell. Rather,
He is pleased when any sinner repents. Sinners who are
finally lost are those who refuse to repent, and God
manifests His holiness and justice in their punishment.
Why then, it is asked, does not God elect all to
salvation? We reply, why should He save any? Despite His
goodness, men of their own accord universally refuse to
repent. It is a mark of God's great mercy that He chooses
to save some. No man has any right to question God's
actions, as if we could judge the Lord of glory. We
ought not to forget that God's purposes are not decided
only by His mercy, but by His wisdom, in which He displays
also His justice and power.
A right balance between God's sovereignty and man's re-
sponsibility is this: When a soul is lost, the fault is
entirely its own; when a soul is saved, the glory is
entirely God's."
- John Cheeseman (op. cit.;P.53).
1 John 2:2 : "And He Himself is the Propitiation for our sins, and
not
for ours only but also for the whole world."
The problem with the Greek word for "world" ("kosmos")
is that it (like
"world" in English, for that matter) has multiple nuanced connotations
to
go along with its denotation. For instance, the word "world"
in Greek can
mean the whole universe (John 1:10); the habitable Earth (John 16:28),
the inhabitants of the Earth (John 1:10 again); unconverted people, both
elect and reprobate (John 15:19); the wicked (John 17:9); and the Elect
( John 1:29; 6:33,51). You'll note that these are all in the writings
of the
Apostle John, the writer of the Epistle that 1 John 2:2 is contained in.
When writing about Christ and His Redemption specifically, St. John
always signifies the Elect part of the world (as he does in John 4:43
and
1 John 4:14, for instance).
In this usage of "the whole world", he can't mean, of course,
every man
in the world because, since Christ is expressly said to be "the Propitiation
for our sins" and for those of the whole world. Note that Christ
Jesus is not
said to be the potential or possible Propitiation for sins, but the present
and
ongoing Propitiation of sins; He is now, in a finished and accomplished
sense,
the Propitiation for our sins. If one takes the view that Christ is the
Propitiation for the sins of every person in the world, then all are presently
justified, and their sins have already been atoned for, and no one can
any
longer be punished in the Eternal Realm for their sins (whether they believe
or not).
Obviously, St. John held to no such belief, and the meaning of "the
whole
world" here must mean something else. Let me point out that "the
whole
world" and "all the world" are used in Scripture in a number
of places (and by
various writers) to mean a part of the world (Luke 2:1; Romans 1:8; 3:19;
Colossians 1:6; Revelation 3:10; 12:9; 13:3, for instance). I've also
pointed
out earlier that the Jews (and the Jewish Christians) were wont to use
"the
whole world" and "world" in a sense that set them apart
from the Jews, and
the Apostles, especially when addressing Gentile converts (which John
was
certainly doing in this General Epistle of 1 John, which circulated to
both
predominantly ethnic Jewish and predominantly Gentile Christian Churches),
would use these terms deliberately in a way to let the Christians understand
that the widening of the Covenant into the New Covenant included both
Jew-
is and Gentile believers. This is done in John 1:29; 3:16-17; 4:42; and
6:33.
I think it likely that the meaning here intends to convey that not only
has
Jesus' Propitiatory Sacrifice atoned for John and the Elect (both Jewish
and Gentile) that he was writing to, but also for those Elect to be drawn
from
all the nations, tribes, and peoples of the entire Earth ( Revelation
7:9-10). Revelation 3:20 : "Behold, I stand at the door and knock.
If anyone
hears My Voice and opens the door, I will come in to him, and dine
with him, and he with Me."
This passage, used so frequently for evangelistic purposes, is not
addressed to unbelievers at all, or even to an individual (except in a
representative sense), since it is addressed by Christ (through His Prophet,
the Apostle John) to the Church of Laodicea (or rather, to that Church's
Angel, which may be a Heavenly Representative Angel or may be the
Bishop or Pastor of that congregation), as Revelation 3:14ff. makes clear.
Jesus warned this lukewarm Church that they were in danger of chastening
and judgement for this, and were commanded to repent (verse 19).
Verse 20, the verse we're looking at here, is an Invitation to open the
metaphorical door of the Church to admit Christ in full zeal for His Presence,
so that He can fellowship with His repentant People in a Eucharistic
(e.g., communion or sacramental setting, which is why liturgical Churches
use this verse as an invitation to the Lord's Supper from time to time).
This is decidedly not a verse allowing non-believers the power to admit
or debar Jesus from their lives by their own choice or will. This verse
was
addressed by Christ to His Elect (though backslidden Elect they were at
the time in Laodicea).
PASSAGES INDICATING ELECTION AND REPROBATION
Jude 4 : "For certain men have crept in unnoticed, who long ago were
marked
out for this condemnation, ungodly men, who turn the grace of our God
into
lewdness and deny the Only Lord God and our Lord Jesus Christ."
John 17:9,12 : "I pray for them. I do not pray for the world but
for those whom
You have given Me, for they are Yours...While I was with them in the world,
I
kept them in Your Name. Those whom You gave Me I have kept; and none of
them is lost except the son of perdition, that the Scripture may be fulfilled."
John 6:39-40 : "This is the Will of the Father Who sent Me, that
of all He has
given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.
And this
is the Will of Him Who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes
in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last
day."
John 10:27-30 : "My sheep hear My Voice, and I know them, and they
follow
Me. And I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; neither
shall
anyone snatch them out of My Hand. My Father, Who has given them to Me,
is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of My Father's
Hand.
I and My Father are one."
John 12:39-40 : " Therefore they could not believe, because Isaiah
said again:
' He has blinded their eyes and hardened their hearts, lest they should
see
with their eyes, lest they should understand with their hearts and turn,
so that
I should heal them.'."
Acts 16:14 : "Now a certain woman named Lydia heard us. She was a
seller
of purple from Thyatira, who worshipped God. The Lord opened her heart
to
heed the things spoken by Paul."
1 Corinthians 4:7 : "For Who makes you differ from another? And what
do
you have that you did not receive? Now if you did indeed receive it, why
do you
boast as if you had not received it?"
1 John 2:19 : " They went out from us, but they were not of us; for
if they
had been of us, they would have continued with us; but they went out that
they
might be made manifest, that none of them were of us."
1 Peter 2:7-8 : "Therefore, to you who believe, He is precious; but
to those
who are disobedient, 'The stone which the builders rejected has become
the
chief cornerstone,' and 'A stone of stumbling and a rock of offense.'
They
stumble, being disobedient to the Word, to which they also were appointed."
Acts 2:47 : " So continuing daily with one accord in the temple,
and
breaking bread from house to house, they ate their food with gladness
and
simplicity of heart, praising God and having favour with all the people.
And
the Lord added to the church daily those who were being saved."
DOES GOD LOVE EVERY MAN
ALIKE?
We must be clear what we mean when we say that God loves
all men alike. There are two senses to be given to the word
'loves' in this context; in one sense, God does indeed love
all men; in the other, the Scriptures assert that He does
not.
The distinction to be drawn is between God's love for men
as their Creator, and His love for men as their Redeemer.
Inasmuch as God has created all men and has pronounced His
creation good, although now marred by sin, it can truly be
said that God 'hates nothing He has made'. He demonstrates
this love as Creator by His providential care for His crea-
tures. In this sense, God is the 'Saviour of all men'(1
Tim. 4:10). We must not lose sight of this important truth
of the universal love of God...
However, the Scriptures plainly teach that God's love as
Redeemer is a particular love, manifested toward those upon
whom He has set His love in their election, redemption,
calling and glorification. It is a love from which nothing
can separate God's own: 'For I am persuaded that neither
death nor life...nor any other created thing, shall be able
to separate us from the love which is in Christ Jesus our
Lord' (Rom.8:38-39). That God's redemptive love does not
extend to all men is plainly taught in Malachi 1:2-3, this
passage being cited by Paul in Romans 9:11-13: '(For the
children not yet being born, nor having done any good or
evil, that the purpose of God according to election might
stand, not of works but of Him who calls), it was said to
her [Rebekah],'The older shall serve the younger.' As it
is written, 'Jacob I have loved, but Esau I have hated.'""
- John Cheeseman, (ibid.; Pp.57-58).
IF THE DOCTRINE OF ELECTION
IS TRUE, THEN IT FOLLOWS THAT
ALL THOSE WHO ARE NOT ELECT ARE INFALLIBLY PREDESTINED TO
CONDEMNATION, COME WHAT MAY.CAN THE AUTHOR OF SUCH A
DECREE BE THE GOD OF MERCY AND LOVE REVEALED IN THE BIBLE?
The first thing to be said in connection with the doctrine
of reprobation here being spoken of is that the Scriptures
tell us much more about God's decrees and purposes with
regard to those being saved than with regard to those who
perish. The gospel is good news, proclaiming to lost
sinners an incomparable Saviour who delivers from the wrath
to come. But since one of the principal objections to the
doctrine of election is that it necessarily entails repro-
ation, it is important that the scriptural teaching on the
subject should be examined.
It is, as the objector rightly points out, a truth of
logic that if God has purposed to save some, then He has
also purposed not to save others. But not only is a logical
truth: it is also a scriptural one. The Lord Jesus Christ
thanked His Father that He had 'hidden these things from
the wise and prudent'(Matt.11:25). Paul declares that God
'has mercy on whom He wills, and whom he wills He hardens',
for, 'Does not the potter have power over the clay, from
the same lump to make one vessel for honour and another for
dishonour?'(Rom.9:18,21). Peter speaks of those who are
'disobedient to the word, to which they also were
appointed'(1 Pet.2:8), while Jude warns his readers of' cer-
tain men' who long ago were marked out for this condem-
nation'(Jude 4).It is clear, then, from Scripture, that God
has decreed, or purposed, to do from eternity what He
actually does in time in regard to those who perish, as well
as in regard to those who are saved.
The doctrine of reprobation may be stated thus: 'The rest
of mankind God was pleased...to pass by; and to ordain them
to dishonour and wrath for their sin'( Westminster Confes-
sion iii, 7).It includes two distinct acts: that of passing
by, which is simply 'decreeing to leave - and in
consequence leaving - men in their natural state of sin, to
withhold from them, or to abstain from conferring upon them,
those special, supernatural, gracious influences, which are
necessary to enable them to repent and believe', the result
of which is that they continue in their sin and guilt; and
that of foreordination to damnation, which is a judicial act
by which God ordains such men to condemnation on account of
their sin. It is very important to note that the punishment
to which God has foreordained the non-elect is a deserved
punishment. It is God's justice which requires that their
sin be punished. The decree is founded upon, and has refer-
ence to, their sin as a thing certain and contemplated. So
it is that God is just, for the condemnation of a sinner is
due to his own sin. There is little in Scripture to suggest
that God's decrees of election and reprobation contemplate
men other than as in their fallen state, so that the sove-
reign act of reprobation is a simple decree not to save,
rather than a positive decree to damn a certain number
arbitrarily (which means that men were made sinners to fit
them for destruction).
The grace of God shines all the more brightly when we
consider that, because all have sinned, all could justly
have been passed by. Furthermore, it is worth noting that,
while an elect and justified sinner can receive assurance
from the Holy Spirit of his eternal salvation, and it is
indeed God's will that he should, it is not the case that
anyone can know himself to be foreordained to eternal damn-
ation. Unregenerate men, in general, do not care; whereas
the troubles of those that do are generally evidence of a
work of grace of the Holy Spirit or of conviction prior to
regeneration. While there is still life, there is indeed
hope; the offer of the gospel is held out to all, and
God's grace can rescue the most wretched of sinners.
In conclusion, it is worth recalling some words of
William Cunningham:
Calvinists do not shrink from discussing the subject of
reprobation, though, from its awful character, they have
no satisfaction in dwelling upon it, and feel deeply the
propriety of being peculiarly careful here not to
attempt to be wise above what is written...There is some-
thing about God's decrees and purposes, even in regard to
those who perish, which can be resolved only into His own
good pleasure, into the most wise and holy counsel of His
will."
- John Cheeseman, ibid.; Pp.64-66.
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